Jagger,
You speak of the term "legal interpretation" but sounds to me like what you are referring too is "judicial interpretation" but even that term like the former have a problem in a real legal sense. Neither exist in themselves as terms within law itself. Proof? First, I give you Bouvier's Law (both 1886' and 1914' additions) that are the law dictionary of Congress. Neither term appear within it's pages. What about the more common Black's law? Same applies here as well. But the one term that does appear that may suit towards you is "Judicial activism" and Black's Law sez the following, you don't mind if I pull my Black's Law down and quote directly from it do you?
Judicial Activism: Judicial philosophy which motivates judges to depart from strict adherence to judicial precedent in favor or progressive and new social policies which are not always consistant with the restraint expected of appellate judges. It is commonly marked by decisions calling for social engineering and occasionally these decisions represent intrusions into legislative and executive matters.
Black's Law, 5th Edition, page 760, circa 1979'
A google search of the term "rules of legal interpretation" will in fact result in little direct website sources and the closest thing to you term is a website selling a book on "cardinal rules of legal interpretation" published by a company in Germany.
There is such thing as a legal interpretation but the courts in so doing rely upon legislative intent and language usage and construction. This also has to do with the language of the day. When the Bill of Rights was proposed, there were no federal courts in the sense we have today and America's body of judicial law as a matter of review on the federal level was little if any at all. They used language context and word meaning, intent (odd you discount the Federalist papers and writtings of say Madison when the courts routinely reference and even cite these sources as a matter of law in arriving at legal opinion) and in our case here in America, in matters beyond statutory law (legislative law) they use the common law which is according to Black's Law again:
As distinguished from law created by enactment of legislatures, the common law comprises the body of those principles and rules of action, relating to the government and security of persons and property, which derive their authority solely from usages and customs of immemorial antiquity, or from the judgements and decrees of the courts recognizing, affirming, and enforcing such usages and customs; and in this sense, particularly the ancient unwritten Law of England. The "common law" is all the statutory and case law background of England and the American colonies before the American Revolution. "Common Law" consists of those principles, usage and rules of action applicable to government and the security of persons and property which do not rest for their authority upon any express and positive declaration of the will of the legislature.
Black's Law, 5th Edition, page 250, circa 1979'
A good case in point to understand the idea of common law would be common law marriage. Marriage has existed as an institution from time immemorial when men and women bound themselves together for the great family good. This through the years grew in custom and usage and in time as man developed religious institutions, marriage took on it more familar religious role but in this process, it was outside gov't that this institution carried forth. In America, this same process held sway until in the early 20th century over fear of interracial marriage, gov't instituted a marriage licensing process moving this common law institution into the realm of statutory law (legislative law) where it resides today. Gov't in effect circumvented a common law institution making in effect marriage illegal outside gov't sanction. Don't believe me? Look at the defintion of the term license itself.
The permission by competent authority to do an act, which, without such permission, would be illegal, a trespass, a tort.
Black's Law, 5th Edition, page 829, circe 1979'
Militia, like marriage, is an institution of long standing tradition that predates organized gov't as we know them. In the truest sense, militia is the original "common defense" of liberty and freedom and in out western traditions comes from centuries old Saxon customs. We didn't invent it as other cultures also have their own but the name itself "militia" is a western tradition. At the time of the revolution, we had no standing armies and thus our fighting force was made up of volunteers from local peoples who held those old Saxon customs near and dear. Along with that local law and tradition held sway and in some case there were amory houses that held arms for defense but it was left to the local community to decide how it would decide it's custom. Other communities never had such centrol provisions and it was left to the individual to prepare for himself. Regardless, this was the manner and force that fought a gov't standing army to gain freedom and it was this experience that embedded the dangers of standing armies in the minds of the founding fathers.
When it came time to setup a more functioning gov't beyond the article of confederation (big mistake IMO) a compromise was reached so to speak in that the President could call forth from the States, the militia (US Constitution, Art. 2 Sec. 2) but only on the condition that the Congress make a formal declaration of war (US Constitution, Art. 1, Sec. 8). One of the problems with the original Constitution minus the Bill of Rights was from the anti-federalist POV, there seemed to be a valid concern of creating a type of imperial central gov't similar to what they'd just fought to seperate from. The 2nd amendment both from a historical context and in light of the language of Art. 1 and 2 of the constitution must be understood.
In order to understand the meaning of the 2nd amendment, you have to understand the context, conditions and thinking at the times the amendment was proposed and ultimately drafted. Using Black's Law again, page 726 we find this under Intent of Law:
The true meaning, the corect understanding or intention of law. A presumption or inference made by the courts. The natural and usual sense; the common meaning or understanding; the plain meaning of any writing as apperant on its face without straining or distorting the construction.
From what I see of your continous posts across many threads on the 2nd amendment, the real goal is not to advocate proper application of the 2nd amendment but rather to undercut it's real historical intent and that is a custom local in nature and practiced among freemen seperate of gov't. I think you want to try and undercut the true context as a preface for arguing fro a general elimination of arms among the general population. Most of that like is driven by an illogical driven fear of lack of security in the same illogoical manner of some here who fear a bunch of muslims.
The problem I see for many advocates (a number of them here) of an originalist view of the 2nd amendment (and do very well I might add) is while they argue and try to defend in original context, they take a purely modern view of military might of the central state and advocate for that as well. A standing army in itself negates the need for the original, historical militia (the real mechanism of common defense)and thus relegates the 2nd amendment to at best defending the right to go deer hunting every Nov. The militia is the freeman's answer to proper self defense and not some powerful military/industrial complex bent on it's mission of profit margins while being a facilitator of Hard Wilsonianism of global democracy under the hard hand of interventionism. I say exercised by both ruling political parties too.
If we continue the path we are on, the 2nd amendment in it's truest historical sense, is made irrelevent and thus becomes something that in time will be done away with. Under these conditions Jagger, your argument actually holds sway over others in many respects. Even locally now, the law in many cases prevents the citizen of truly defending himself/herself and property locally so we've shed this duty again to the State (gov't police) so of what use now is a free man acting in his own defense when called for? Again Jagger, your point is made for you.
Now go ahead and Huh! Duh! or whatever other things you want to do which again just proves my contention that your propose is purely anti-gun or in reality anti-freedom and anti-liberty. Let's just start calling it what it really is shall we.