I'll stipulate everything you say is correct just to move the argument.
My question,
Exactly why do you offer this?
Is it to support a false doctrine that water baptism is required for salvation?
When exactly did the water of any lake or river become stronger than the shed blood of the Son of God?
Exactly when?
Should I presume there are no, nor have there ever have been any, none, death bed conversions?
When scripture says
And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved?
31And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.
Exactly what does that mean?
You quote Acts 16:31 out of its context to leave the impression that all that was necessary for the jailer to do to be saved was to believe in Jesus Christ. The answer which Paul gave to this jailer must be understood in its context. When this man asked what he had to do to be saved, he was an unbeliever. The first thing that an unbeliever must do to be saved is to become a believer. Hence, Paul’s answer was, “Believe on the Lord Jesus . . . .” the next thing that the text states is that Paul spake unto him the word of the Lord. This man could not become a believer before he heard the word of the Lord. He had to hear the word of the Lord and believe it before he could be saved.
However, notice that the jailer changed his mind toward Paul and the gospel. Prior to Paul preaching to him, the jailer was persuaded that Paul and Silas were troubling the city and teaching customs which Romans could not observe. Consequently, when he received the prisoners into his charge (after they had already been beaten), he placed them in stocks to torture them. After he had heard the word of the Lord preached, he took them and washed their stripes. This denotes a change in his conviction about the gospel and these preachers.
The text relates that the jailer was baptized “the same hour of the night” (Acts 16:33). Why was this man baptized in the middle of the night? Why did Paul go to so much trouble to baptize this man immediately? If he had been like you, he would have told the man that he was saved the moment he accepted Jesus as his personal Saviour and that at some convenient time the church would have a baptismal service at which time he would be baptized. The church was already in Philippi and services would have been conducted after that night, Paul baptized him in the middle of the night. Why?
The only reasonable explanation of why Paul baptized this man in the middle of the night is that it had something to do with his eternal salvation. The question which was asked pertained to eternal salvation; it was, “What must I do to be saved?” The reply was, “Believe on the Lord Jesus ….” When the jailer returned from having been baptized, the Scriptures relate that he rejoiced, “believing in God with all his house” (16:34). His response to the gospel in baptism was understood as what was necessary to make him a believer, one who is a child of God.
That this explanation is true is seen from the other statements in Scripture regarding the purpose of Bible baptism in water. Study them in their context for yourself:
He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned (Mk. 16:16).
Then Peter said unto them, Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost (Acts 2:38).
And now why tarriest thou? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away they sins, calling on the name of the Lord (Acts 22:16).
The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ (1 Pet. 3:21).
These Scriptures harmonize regarding the conversion of the jailer. He was baptized the same hour of the night in order to be saved, to have his sins washed away.