Why wasn't the whole population mandated? This argument is closer to the car insurance argument than the ACA. These seamen chose a dangerous job that required them to contribute to their specific care. Sickness and injuries were guarantees.
With the ACA, you are mandated to purchase a broad coverage policy that doesn't even apply to your life. Men and old women need a policy covering pregnancy related care for example.
You havent the first clue what the Sick / Disabled seamans act was about. The only industry operating in 1792 was the maritime industry. This industry represented the largest organized workforce at the time.
You question... "Why wasn't the whole population mandated" is purely ridiculous at best.
Did you forget that slavery was still in existence at that time? Did you forget that women couldnt vote at that time or work? Did you forget that Chinese were being used as slaves?
How could the government at THAT time MANDATE the entire population be covered under the ACT when all citizens were not equal??
Are you this dense?
The entire maritime hospital system was a government run system, and it used DEDUCTIONS from those men working in the maritime industry. The ACT that President John Adams signed, was put together by the rest of the other founding fathers in 1792 and NOT ONE of them said this was unconstitutional.
Only todays Re-visionist wannabee experts believe that the ACA is something different from that of the seamans act. They are indentical with the exception that today we have a private health care system that DIDNT exist in 1792.
You can complain about coverage, but I have and pay for car insurance and I dont get into accidents, yet I make that premium every month without complaining, so do YOU (hopefully).
You in the right wing only know what you are told versus what you actually know.
That is the real problem in America.
TOS.