That may be true Old but this presents what I think is a real problem here in this thread. The definition of terms. Hope, faith, belief, what do they actually mean? What is the history and the historical meaning of those terms and then how were those terms used and grafted into our culture in regards to social mores, religious or otherwise? Is my use of those terms correct? Is your use correct? Is anyone here at all using the terms correctly?
Seems to me until some consensus on terms is arrived at, any discussion that moves forward for any benefit goes nowhere.
As to the point about religion and science. There was a time where religion and science were not separated at all and yet there were points in history where religion was not also as rigid and dogmatic, even literal. There was space to breath and move around in. And not that science can't have its own rigidity and dogmatism too.
One of my favorite quotes is from the late Nobel Laureate Richard Feynman who speaking to a group of science teachers said, "Science is the belief in the ignorance of experts."
As to the nature of science and religion, before being crushed by Christianity, there were schools of thought within so-called paganism, a term of abuse imposed by christians, that did wonderful work and yet easily moved in and out of both worlds of religion and science. One example would be the great city of Alexandria and among its philosophical schools often called mystery schools was the central source of knowledge in the Library of Alexandria. Now christians often get the blame for the knowledge lost in Alexandria but it is a bit more complicated than that. Also the muslims had a hand in it as well but the great war of Christianity and Paganism as a result of Christian Orthodoxy post Constantine did not help matters at all. The great Alexandrian pagan scholar Hypatia and her tragic story may well be a good account of this and many feel was the death knell that carried our world into the 1000 years known as the dark ages. I on some level subscribe to that but more generally than specifically to Hypatia herself.
But in regards to science, science holds a great debt to religion and in fact to Islam specifically. As christianity was deep in the throws of ignorance and bloodshed as religion was abused for the sake of power, in Islam an enlightenment was at work. In the late 10th century was born Ibn-al-Haytham who would go on to change the world of science as we know it. And it was interesting that this eye opening moment came about when in the early 11th century, Ibn moved to none other than Egypt and from his learning there emerged what we today refer to as the Scientific Method. More on Ibn-al-Haythem found
here but there are many sources should one choose to look.
Yep, it was from the world of Islam that science got its foundational method to which it establishes what is called truth or fact. At TAM (The Amazing Meeting) a few years back, Neil deGrasse Tyson spoke of this very subject along with the fact that much of Astronomy and mathematics came from the Islamic world and during a time christians were locked in their own dungeon of ignorance and abuse, again, not for the sake of religion but for the sake of power. Religion only served as the weapon. Sound familiar? We're not really that complicated you know!
It is also suggested that the Genesis story and what science sez about the creation of our universe matches on some level and I can see why some would argue that. As I said elsewhere, the father of the Big Bang theory, Catholic Priest George Lemaitre, saw the Big Bang and its singularity as the source, the cosmic egg of all being, in his case God. The irony that science has taken the hypothesis of a religious man and moved it forward to offer a secular explanation of our being here. As to the creation stories (yes stories as in more than 1) the english translation does seems to make that claim valid but do the Hebrew source language and culture of the time support such a conclusion?
At another time because it will get in depth in order to do both sides justice, I'd like to take that claim on using the bible itself along with contextual scholarship of the bible and see if such claim is indeed valid in the first place. It may well be so.
The backstory also explains (solves the contradiction) why the order of creation in Genesis Chapter 1 differs from the order of creation in Chapter 2 (thus more than 1 story) and that the Chapter 2 story (7th to 6th century BCE) predates the Chapter 1 (post Babylonian exile) and chapter 1 was to impose the new monotheism to supplant the old polytheism of Chapter 2.
Hmmmm!