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The 2nd Amendment reads....
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
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The standard liberal argument against the individual right to gun ownership has always been to say that the intent of the Amendment was to allow Militias to keep and bear arms.
If this were the case....then why doesn't the Amendment simply say...."the right of the Militias to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."?
It doesnt say that. It says the people. The Founding Fathers distrusted standing armies and oppressive tyrannical governments, and believed that the people had the right to be armed for their own defense and the defense of the State. The people were (and still are) the militia.
The Constitution is full of checks and balances. One of the most important of those checks and balances....is an armed populace.
You see SOBER, thats the problem with gun owners. They dont understand basic english.
You want to EXTRAPOLATE TWO WORDS out of a sentence that has a totally different meaning that what you propose it does.
The second amendment:
""A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of
the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
The sentence has a meaning and it has four parts to it. The first part of the sentence tells you what is being addressed.
A WELL REGULATED MILITIA, (COMMA- that means this plus that) being necessary to the security of a free state, (COMMA- that means the first two plus this) the right of the people to keep and bear arms, (COMMA- this means the first three plus this) shall not be infringed.
So, in 1776 what did this mean? IN NO WAY did the founders intend on people having guns at home, in cars, on racks in trucks, hidden in jackets as backups for self protection against other citizens.
In 1776, the states were new and without the benefit of a national guard, state police or national armies for protection, each state was responsible for protecting the borders of each state from other states or from the king of england coming and overtaking the goverment.
The militia, which back then was the army, was made up of the townspeople, and the guns they spoke of were to be kept in an armory, not at home. The term BEARING ARMS is a military term and it was used in a military sense in the second amendment, and not a private term.
BEARING arms and POSSESSING arms are two different terminologies.
Now, up in Oregon, you dont propose that you are part of a militia securing the freedom of citizens against california or washington invaders are you?
The second amendment in part two clearly defines what the purpose of the guns is for. THE SECURITY OF A FREE STATE.
There is NOTHING in there about personal safety, shooting hurt animals, or shooting intruders.
Its all about interpretations and who is doing it.
If the founders wanted its citizens to be privately armed, they would have said so in plain language, and they didnt say anything like that.
Peace
TOS