Interesting.
I submit this and glean from it whatever you wish. Remember, like all books, context is vital to understand what is actually being said and taught.
1 Corinthians 1:17: “For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel . . .” Faith is all you need preachers (and
others) cite this verse in order to prove that baptisms not a requirement for salvation. The purpose of baptism is not the object being considered in the “immediate context of this passage. "Contextually"speaking, there were “contentions” among some at Corinth, some saying “I am of Paul,” or “I am of Apollos,” or “I am of Cephas,” or “I am of Christ.” Paul knew that the validity
of baptism is not determined by
who does the baptizing, and he did not want to be a party to their partyism. Paul’s principle mission was “to preach the gospel” — it was not to baptize.
He had baptized “Crispus and Gaius”and “the household of Stephanas,” but he was thankful that he had personally baptized only a few at Corinth, “lest anyone should say that I had baptized in my own name.”
But, the fact remains that all who obeyed the gospel at Corinth had heard, believed, and were baptized (Acts 18:8)
Even in the context of 1 Corinthians 1:17 Paul revealed that in order for one to be “of Christ” (a Christian) two things had to occur: (1) Christ had to be crucified for that person, and (2) that person had to be baptized in “the name” of Christ. The seven verses before 1 Corinthians 1:17 gives the context for that verse, and they also necessarily infer that one must be baptized.
Tons of scripture in the article. I could comment on like above. If interested, I'd be happy to, but just not feeling the intrerest