Here's the one major question on my mind !!!
If the police officer told UPS management he seemed impaired, Why didn't the officer do a sobriety check himself ????
If the officer didn't think it was necessary, Why tell UPS he seemed impaired then ???
The only thing I can think of is that the swerving action represented an impaired judgement by the PO.
Did that give UPS the right to drug test under reasonable cause ??
If so, then any public complaint about UPS driving should lead to a drug test.
Just my thoughts.